This article is within the scope of WikiProject Women's Health, a collaborative effort to improve the coverage of Women's Health on Wikipedia. If you would like to participate, please visit the project page, where you can join the discussion and see a list of open tasks.Women's HealthWikipedia:WikiProject Women's HealthTemplate:WikiProject Women's Healthwomen's health articles
This article is within the scope of WikiProject Sexology and sexuality, a collaborative effort to improve the coverage of human sexuality on Wikipedia. If you would like to participate, please visit the project page, where you can join the discussion and see a list of open tasks.Sexology and sexualityWikipedia:WikiProject Sexology and sexualityTemplate:WikiProject Sexology and sexualitySexology and sexuality articles
It seems pretty obvious to me that the following sentence is a strange interpretation of findings: "There is an overall poor correlation (r = 0.26) between women's self-reported levels of desire and their VPG readings suggesting that vaginal blood flow is not a reliable indicator of female sexual arousal and a better method is needed." Since women's self-reported levels of desire is reasonably the "gold standard", no method is expected to outperform it. The best possible measurement would have a correlation coefficient of 1.0 with self-reported level of desire. But what is the point of introducing such a measurement when there is already one that is noninvasive, harmless, and free? — Preceding unsigned comment added by [[User:{{{1}}}|{{{1}}}]] ([[User talk:{{{1}}}#top|talk]] • [[Special:Contributions/{{{1}}}|contribs]])