Talk:Culpable homicide

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Generality

I don't think "Culpable homicide" is scott-specific term. The term is used in other countries as much as in Scotland. — Ambuj Saxena (talk) 16:15, 11 September 2006 (UTC)[reply]

I concur with Ambuj Saxena, culpable homicide is in the Criminal Code, at least last time I looked. It is not a formal charge, but a supra classification term. When someone dies the Crown classifies it as either Culpable or Non-culpable and only in cases of culpable homicide (murder, manslaughter, or infantacide) can a person violate the Criminal Code, non-culpable is justified killing. --Mikerussell 07:07, 11 December 2006 (UTC)[reply]
The term is defined in New Zealand law,[1] with a similar meaning, too, so I think it is a generic concept from English common law, too, so likely has world-wide application - Cameron Dewe (talk) 05:52, 28 February 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Canada

"Killings classified as not culpable are justifiable killings" This adds nothing to clarity. In its strictest "justifiable" is the same thing as "not culpable". In its commone sense meaning it does not apply considering that the section 228 defines "killing by influence on the mind" as not culpable. "thus the term is used to define the criminal intent or mens rea of a killing" - this is plain wrong. I would reduce these to citing the Criminal Code itself: 222(3) Homicide that is not culpable is not an offence. —Preceding unsigned comment added by Beshkenadze (talk • contribs) 23:16, 11 March 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Under Indian law: there's probably an error to correct

Currently the article says, "Culpable homicide" is an offence under §299 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), defined as "Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death, or without the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or with the knowledge that he is likely by such act to cause death, commits the offence of culpable homicide." (emphasis added by me). I think there's an error here: the word without should probably read with. Would someone please verify this and update the article accordingly? (I am unfamiliar with the law of India.) Oaklandguy (talk) 07:58, 15 September 2014 (UTC)[reply]

You are right. Its "with". See the bare act here. Have changed it now. §§Dharmadhyaksha§§ {T/C} 10:21, 15 September 2014 (UTC)[reply]

Shouldn't "bare act" be capitalized (i.e.: "Bare Act"? ```` — Preceding unsigned comment added by Terry Thorgaard (talk • contribs) 16:50, 16 September 2014 (UTC)[reply]

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